Statistics Distributions And Portfolio Metrics
40 essential concepts in portfolio statistics and risk metrics
What You'll Learn
Master portfolio statistics, risk metrics, and distribution analysis with 40 comprehensive flashcards. Learn Sharpe Ratio, kurtosis, skewness, correlation, diversification, and portfolio variance calculations for quantitative finance.
Key Topics
- Sharpe Ratio calculation and annualization formulas
- Distribution analysis: kurtosis, skewness, and normality tests
- Portfolio variance and correlation mathematics
- Diversification principles and risk metrics
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How to study this deck
Start with a quick skim of the questions, then launch study mode to flip cards until you can answer each prompt without hesitation. Revisit tricky cards using shuffle or reverse order, and schedule a follow-up review within 48 hours to reinforce retention.
Preview: Statistics Distributions And Portfolio Metrics
Question
What is the formula for the Sharpe Ratio?
Answer
Sharpe Ratio = (Mean Return - Risk-Free Rate) / Standard Deviation of Returns. When risk-free rate ≈ 0: Sharpe Ratio = Mean Return / Standard Deviation
Question
How do you annualize a daily Sharpe Ratio?
Answer
Annual Sharpe Ratio = Daily Sharpe Ratio × √252. Note: 252 is the number of trading days in a year, and √252 ≈ 15.87
Question
How do you annualize daily volatility (standard deviation)?
Answer
Annual Volatility = Daily Volatility × √252. Volatility scales with the square root of time because variance is additive.
Question
How do you annualize daily returns?
Answer
Annual Return = (1 + Daily Return)^252 - 1. Returns compound, so you CANNOT just multiply by 252. Example: 0.08% daily = (1.0008)^252 - 1 ≈ 21.9% annually
Question
Why do we multiply by √252 for volatility but compound returns differently?
Answer
Volatility (standard deviation) scales with √time because variance is additive over time (σ²_annual = 252 × σ²_daily). Returns compound multiplicatively because each day's return builds on the previous balance.
Question
What does a Sharpe Ratio of 1.5 indicate?
Answer
Good risk-adjusted performance. General guidelines: <0 = losing money, 0-1 = mediocre, 1-2 = good, >2 = excellent, >3 = exceptional (rare)
Question
What is kurtosis and what does high kurtosis mean?
Answer
Kurtosis measures the 'fatness' of distribution tails. High kurtosis (>3) = fat tails = extreme events happen MORE FREQUENTLY than a normal distribution predicts. This applies to both positive and negative extremes.
Question
What is skewness and what does negative skew mean?
Answer
Skewness measures asymmetry of a distribution. Negative skew = left tail is longer = occasional large losses outweigh gains = when you lose, losses are bigger than typical gains. The distribution leans right with a long left tail.
Question
What's the difference between kurtosis and skewness?
Answer
Kurtosis = HOW OFTEN extremes occur (frequency). Skewness = WHICH DIRECTION extremes lean (asymmetry). High kurtosis = more extremes (both ways). Negative skew = losses are bigger than gains when they occur.
Question
What does the Jarque-Bera test do?
Answer
Tests whether returns follow a normal distribution by examining both skewness and kurtosis. Rejection (high test statistic) means returns are NOT normally distributed. This does NOT mean returns are untrustworthy—just non-normal.
Question
If a strategy fails the Jarque-Bera test, what does that mean?
Answer
Returns don't follow a normal distribution. This means: (1) Be cautious using normal-distribution-based tools, (2) Standard deviation may not fully capture risk, (3) Need additional risk metrics. It does NOT mean the returns are fake or the strategy is bad.
Question
Why is standard deviation limited for non-normal distributions?
Answer
Standard deviation only measures average dispersion from the mean and treats all deviations equally (upside and downside). For non-normal distributions (fat tails, skew), it misses tail risk and asymmetric risk. It underestimates the probability and magnitude of extreme losses.
Question
What is the limitation of the Sharpe Ratio?
Answer
Assumes returns are normally distributed and treats upside volatility the same as downside volatility. Two strategies with identical Sharpe Ratios can have very different risk profiles if one has skew or kurtosis. It doesn't capture tail risk or drawdown risk.
Question
What is the formula for portfolio variance with two assets?
Answer
σ²_p = w₁²σ₁² + w₂²σ₂² + 2w₁w₂ρσ₁σ₂, where w = weights, σ = standard deviations, ρ = correlation. The last term is the covariance term.
Question
What happens to portfolio volatility when correlation = 1.0?
Answer
Portfolio volatility = weighted average of individual volatilities. There is ZERO diversification benefit. Formula: σ_p = w₁σ₁ + w₂σ₂. Assets move perfectly together.
Question
What happens to portfolio volatility when correlation = 0?
Answer
Portfolio gets diversification benefits. The covariance term in the variance formula equals zero, so σ²_p = w₁²σ₁² + w₂²σ₂². Portfolio volatility will be lower than the weighted average of individual volatilities.
Question
What happens to portfolio volatility when correlation = -1.0?
Answer
Maximum diversification benefit. With proper weights, portfolio volatility can theoretically be reduced to zero. Assets move in perfect opposite directions, creating a perfect hedge.
Question
Does adding more stocks to a portfolio always reduce volatility?
Answer
NO. Adding stocks reduces volatility ONLY when correlation < 1.0. If correlation = 1.0 (perfect positive correlation), adding more stocks provides zero diversification benefit. Portfolio volatility would just be the weighted average.
Question
What is the relationship between correlation and covariance?
Answer
Covariance = Correlation × σ₁ × σ₂. They move together: low correlation means low covariance (in magnitude), high correlation means high covariance. Correlation is just standardized covariance (always between -1 and +1).
Question
If you lower correlation while keeping everything else constant, what happens to portfolio volatility?
Answer
Portfolio volatility ALWAYS decreases. Lower correlation reduces the covariance term (2w₁w₂ρσ₁σ₂) in the portfolio variance formula, which lowers total variance and thus volatility.
Question
What is the principle of diminishing marginal returns in diversification?
Answer
The first few assets added to a portfolio provide massive diversification benefits. Each additional asset still helps, but less and less. Example: going from 1 to 5 stocks is huge; going from 50 to 55 stocks barely matters. Most benefits captured with 20-30 stocks.
Question
Why is Option B (US stocks, international stocks, bonds, real estate, commodities) better diversification than Option A (10 US tech stocks)?
Answer
Different asset classes have LOW CORRELATION with each other (maybe 0.2-0.5). They respond to different economic factors. Tech stocks have HIGH CORRELATION with each other (0.7-0.9) because they share similar risk factors. Lower correlation = better diversification.
Question
What is tail risk?
Answer
The risk of extreme negative outcomes (the 'tails' of the distribution). Fat tails (high kurtosis) mean tail risk is higher than normal distribution would predict. Standard deviation underestimates tail risk for non-normal distributions.
Question
If two portfolios have identical mean returns and standard deviations, are they equally attractive?
Answer
NOT necessarily. They have identical Sharpe Ratios, but could have very different risk profiles. One might have negative skew (occasional large losses) or high kurtosis (frequent extremes). Investors care about the full distribution shape, not just mean and standard deviation.
Question
What's the formula for daily return?
Answer
Daily Return = (P_t / P_{t-1}) - 1, where P_t is today's price and P_{t-1} is yesterday's price. Can also be written as: (P_t - P_{t-1}) / P_{t-1}
Question
What's the formula for cumulative return?
Answer
Cumulative Return = (P_t / P_0) - 1, where P_t is the final price and P_0 is the initial price. This is the total return over the entire period.
Question
What does 'risk-adjusted return' mean?
Answer
Return per unit of risk taken. It's not just about how much you made, but how much risk you took to make it. Sharpe Ratio is the most common measure: return / volatility. Higher Sharpe = better risk-adjusted performance.
Question
In the portfolio variance formula, which term can be negative?
Answer
The covariance term: 2w₁w₂ρσ₁σ₂. It's negative when correlation (ρ) is negative, meaning assets move in opposite directions. This REDUCES total portfolio variance. The individual variance terms (w²σ²) are always positive.
Question
Can portfolio volatility be lower than ALL individual asset volatilities?
Answer
YES, when assets have low or negative correlation. The diversification benefit from the negative covariance term can reduce portfolio volatility below even the least volatile individual asset. Example: two 20% volatility assets with ρ=-0.5 can create a portfolio <20% volatility.
Question
What does it mean when assets are 'uncorrelated' (ρ ≈ 0)?
Answer
Assets move independently—no linear relationship. When one goes up, the other might go up, down, or stay flat with no pattern. This provides good diversification because losses in one don't predict losses in the other.
Question
Why do we use 252 days for annualization, not 365?
Answer
252 is the approximate number of TRADING days in a year (markets closed weekends and holidays). Financial calculations use trading days because returns only happen when markets are open. Using 365 would underestimate annualized figures.